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In the response to the question Are Covid-19 vaccines much more deadly than people (and scientists) think? is mentioned that "Docs are instructed not to report deaths after a flu vaccine that are unlikely to be vaccine related since those vaccines have been given over many years without problem".

This was put me to think that if maybe the probabilities are like just 20% of it being the vaccine then it will no be reported. So suppose a group of risk with members 10 000, are vaccined with a vaccine. And 10% die, then if all of them have a risk factor of 10% of die by vaccine it will never be reported, and we will never know that the vaccine have a probability to kill of ~0.1% (Given the example it would have killed 100 persons).

So this could have been masked thousands of kills by vaccine?

motosubatsu
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Erdel von Mises
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    Welcome to Medical Sciences! Please take the [tour] and read the [help]. For reasons mentioned in this post and in [ask], we require some degree of prior research when asking questions. See this list of helpful resources. Please help us to help you and [edit] your question to provide more information on what you have read on this subject, what made you ask this question, and any problems you are having understanding your research. If you found nothing, what did you Google? – Carey Gregory Oct 27 '21 at 04:26

1 Answers1

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we will never know that the vaccine have a probability to kill of ~0.1%

Very unlikely given that randomized trials with thousands of participants have been conducted; one meta-analysis pooled 41,141 patients but "None of the included trials reported any cases of vaccine-associated mortality".

the gods from engineering
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