I am struggling with understanding if and how the following is possible.
Say that I have a machine T
(target) which I want to access from remote (ideally via ssh
).
T
is behind a router/firewall R
and I cannot forward port (e.g.) 22
of R
to port 22
of T
.
In a word, no direct ssh
access to T
is possible.
Now say that
I have a machine
A
on which I have full control.I can ssh from
T
toA
, i.e.T: ssh user@A
succeeds.
Q1: can I use this to access shell of T
from A
? I.e., can I use the connection created from T
to A
, to use T
from A
?
T ---> ssh ----> A # this is possible
T <--- ? shell ? <---- A # is this possible?
Q2: If Q1 is possible:
Let's say that I have a third machine L
(e.g. my laptop), and I aim at having access to the shell of T
from L
. Can I ssh-tunnel A
access to L
?
T ----> ssh ----> A <---- ssh < ---- L
T <------- ?? %&£€ ?? <------- L # is this possible?
any help appreciated.